Units 1—6 Review
2023-03-28
满分150分；时间120分钟。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Which course will the woman probably take？
A. Chemistry. B. Biology. C. Physics.
2. What will the man do for the woman？
A. Repair her car. B. Give her a ride. C. Pick up her aunt.
3. Where did the speakers plan to go？
A. The parking lot. B. A shopping center. C. An opera house.
4. What does the man think of the book？
A. Very interesting. B. Quite difficult. C. Too simple.
5. What is the man’s main reason for leaving France？
A. Being with his family. B. Finding a better job. C. Starting his own business.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题。每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Why is Harry unwilling to join the woman？
A. He has a pain in his knee. B. He wants to watch TV. C. He is too lazy.
7. What will the woman probably do next？
A. Stay at home. B. Take Harry to hospital. C. Take some exercise.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What did the man do last night？
A. He read the textbook. B. He went over his notes. C. He did some exercises.
9. How does the man sound？
A. Worried. B. Curious. C. Encouraging.
10. What do the speakers decide to do next？
A. Go to class. B. Prepare for the exam. C. Have a meal.
聽第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. How will the speakers go to New York？
A. By air. B. By taxi. C. By bus.
12. Why are the speakers making the trip？
A. For business. B. For shopping. C. For holiday.
13. What is the probable relationship between the speakers？
A. Brother and sister. B. Husband and wife. C. Fellow workers.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. Where does the conversation probably take place？
A. In a restaurant. B. In an office. C. In a classroom.
15. What does John do now？
A. He’s a trainer. B. He’s a tour guide. C. He’s a college student.
16. How much can a new person earn for the first year？
A. $10，500. B. $12，000. C. $15，000.
17. How many people will the woman employ？
A. Four. B. Three. C. Two.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. How long does the speaker’s program last？
A. 2 hours. B. 4 hours. C. 6 hours.
19. When does the speaker get to the radio station？
A. At 4：30 am. B. At 5：00 am. C. At 6：00 am.
20. What does the speaker do first after getting home？
A. Take a quick shower. B. Prepare for the next day. C. Deal with program e-mails.
第二部分 閱读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Rocky Mountain National Park covers about 415 square miles with dozens of mountain peaks. More than 250 species of birds will delight your senses and more than 900 types of wildflowers will keep you marveling at their beauty.
To ensure that you arrive on time we strongly suggest that you arrive one day before the departure date.
Day 1 The trip begins at 1：00 pm. Travel by bus to Rocky Mountain National Park. Check in our accommodations， enjoy a fresh lunch and head into the park for our first hike.
Day 2 During today’s hike we will cover 3.8 miles. We’ll stop to enjoy both “The Pool” and Fern Falls on our way to Fern Lake. You’ll enjoy every minute of today’s hike and then spend a relaxing evening in the town of Estes Park.
Day 3 Glacier Gorge—the main section of the Park， has some of the most beautiful attractions in the Park. Today we’ll push our boots up the trail to Black Lake， about 4.7 miles. With views of Longs Peak， we’ll hike past a major waterfall and several smaller lakes before arriving at Black Lake.
Day 4 Today we’ll head to Wild Basin， southeast of the main park area， for a hike to Ouzel Lake. Wild Basin traverses （穿过） through Aspen Forest past rushing streams， to a high-mountain lake where we will enjoy a picnic lunch.
Day 5 The Flat Top Mountain area will delight your senses with thick forests and meadows of abundant wildflowers. Our feet will carry us for about 8.8 miles.
Day 6 Catch the Estes Park bus to Denver International Airport or continue on your own to other adventures！
21. Where will people sleep on the second day？
A. By Black Lake. B. By Fern Lake.
C. On Flat Top Mountain. D. In the town of Estes Park.
22. When will people hike in Glacier Gorge？
A. Day 1. B. Day 2. C. Day 3. D. Day 4.
23. What can people enjoy in the Flat Top Mountain area？
A. Lots of flowers. B. A major waterfall. C. Rushing streams. D. A high-mountain lake.
B
Five years ago， when I taught art at a school in Seattle， I used Tinkertoys as a test at the beginning of a term to find out something about my students. I put a small set of Tinkertoys in front of each student， and said， “Make something out of the Tinkertoys. You have 45 minutes today—and 45 minutes each day for the rest of the week.”
A few students hesitated to start. They waited to see what the rest of the class would do. Several others checked the instructions and made something according to one of the model plans provided. Another group built something out of their own imaginations.
Once I had a boy who worked experimentally with Tinkertoys in his free time. His constructions filled a shelf in the art classroom and a good part of his bedroom at home. I was delighted at the presence of such a student. Here was an exceptionally creative mind at work. His presence meant that I had an unexpected teaching assistant in class whose creativity would infect other students.
Encouraging this kind of thinking has a downside. I ran the risk of losing those students who had a different style of thinking. Without fail one would declare， “But I’m just not creative.”
“Do you dream at night when you’re asleep？”
“Oh， sure.”
“So tell me one of your most interesting dreams.” The student would tell something wildly imaginative. Flying in the sky or in a time machine or growing three heads. “That’s pretty creative. Who does that for you？”
“Nobody. I do it.”
“Really—at night， when you’re asleep？”
“Sure.”
“Try doing it in the daytime， in class， okay？”
24. Why did the teacher use Tinkertoys in class？
A. To know more about the students. B. To make the lessons more exciting.
C. To raise the students’ interest in art. D. To teach the students about toy design.
25. What do we know about the boy mentioned in Paragraph 3？
A. He liked to help his teacher. B. He preferred to study alone.
C. He was active in class. D. He was imaginative.
26. What does the underlined word “downside” in Paragraph 4 probably mean？
A. Mistake. B. Disadvantage. C. Difficulty. D. Complaint.
27. Why did the teacher ask the students to talk about their dreams？
A. To see their creativity. B. To form their sleeping habits.
C. To improve their memory. D. To know their ways of thinking.
C
Honey from the African forest is not only a kind of natural sugar， it is also delicious. Most people， and many animals， like eating it. However， the only way for them to get that honey is to find a wild bees’ nest and take the honey from it. Often， these nests are high up in trees， and it is difficult to find them. In parts of Africa， though， people and animals looking for honey have a strange and unexpected helper—a little bird called a honey guide.
The honey guide does not actually like honey， but it does like the wax （蜂蠟） in the beehives. The little bird cannot reach this wax， which is deep inside the bees’ nest. So， when it finds a suitable nest， it looks for someone to help it. The honey guide gives a loud cry that attracts the attention of both passing animals and people. Once it has their attention， it flies through the forest， waiting from time to time for the curious animal or person as it leads them to the nest. When they finally arrive at the nest， the follower reaches in to get at the delicious honey as the bird patiently waits and watches. Some of the honey， and the wax， always fall to the ground， and this is when the honey guide takes its share.
Scientists do not know why the honey guide likes eating the wax， but it is very determined in its efforts to get it. The birds seem to be able to smell wax from a long distance away. They will quickly arrive whenever a beekeeper is taking honey from his beehives， and will even enter churches when beeswax candles are being lit.
28. Why does the author say it is difficult to find a wild bees’ nest？
A. It’s small in size. B. It’s hidden in trees.
C. It’s covered with wax. D. It’s hard to recognize.
29. What do the underlined words “the follower” in Paragraph 2 refer to？
A. The bee. B. The bird. C. The honey seeker. D. The beekeeper.
30. The honey guide is special in the way .
A. it gets its food B. it goes to church
C. it sings in the forest D. it reaches into bees’ nests
31. What can be the best title for the text？
A. Wild Bees B. Wax and Honey
C. Beekeeping in Africa D. Honey-lovers’ Helper
D
The kids in this village wear dirty， ragged clothes. They sleep beside cows and sheep in huts made of sticks and mud. They have no school. Yet they all can chant the English alphabet， and some can make words.
The key to their success： 20 tablet computers （平板電脑） dropped off in their Ethiopian village in February by a US group called One Laptop Per Child.
The goal is to find out whether kids using today’s new technology can teach themselves to read in places where no schools or teachers exist. The Massachusetts Institute of Technology researchers analyzing （分析） the project data say they’re already amazed. “What I think has already happened is that the kids have already learned more than they would have in one year of kindergarten，” said Matt Keller， who runs the Ethiopian program.
The fastest learner—and the first to turn on one of the tablets—is 8-year-old Kelbesa Negusse. The device’s camera was disabled to save memory， yet within weeks Kelbesa had figured out its workings and made the camera work. He called himself a lion， a marker of accomplishment （成就） in Ethiopia.
With his tablet， Kelbesa rearranged the letters HSROE into one of the many English animal names he knows. Then he spelled words on his own. “Seven months ago he didn’t know any English. That’s unbelievable，” said Keller.
The project aims to get kids to a stage called “deep reading”， where they can read to learn. It won’t be in Amharic， Ethiopia’s first language， but in English， which is widely seen as the ticket to higher paying jobs.
32. How does the Ethiopian program help the kids in the village？
A. It provides money for building schools. B. It allows them to study on their own.
C. It improves their living standards. D. It trains teachers for them.
33. What can we infer from Keller’s words in Paragraph 3？
A. They need more time to analyze data.
B. More children are needed for the research.
C. He is confident about the future of the project.
D. The research should be carried out in kindergartens.
34. It amazed Keller that with the tablet Kelbesa could___________.
A. make phone calls to his friends B. learn English words quickly
C. write letters to researchers D. draw pictures of animals
35. What is the aim of the project？
A. To offer Ethiopians higher paying jobs.
B. To make Amharic widely used in the world.
C. To help Ethiopian kids read and learn in English.
D. To assist Ethiopians in learning their first language.
第二節 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Art is food for the soul， and children learning art actually get advantages. Here are some advantages of learning art for children.
Art helps increase creativity.
Art allows children to understand the world and express themselves in a creative way. And there is no right or wrong in every art piece. The child’s opinion and feeling will be unique and highly appreciated in an art class.
Art helps build confidence.
Children who take part in performance classes get the chance to speak in front of people they don’t know. They will become confident little by little.
Art is about creating something out of nothing. A child will ask himself/herself how to express a certain feeling through a dance or a facial expression， and how to use his/her feelings to create a piece of music that would tell a story. All these skills will help the child in his/her future life.
Art helps develop patience and determination.
Children who learn new music instrument know how hard it is to achieve progress. It is highly important in a competitive world when you are required to stay patient and never give up in order to learn new skills.
Art helps increase responsibility.
They become responsible for their actions and mistakes. This is very important in the development of every adult because we’re all living in a group.
A. Art helps kids express themselves.
B. Art helps improve problem-solving skills.
C. They can learn that there is no perfection.
D. It allows them to get over the fear of facing strangers.
E. No two children will come up with the same art piece.
F. The only way to master it is through continuous practice.
G. Through art， children realize that their actions affect others.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
第三部分 語言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 （共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Summer vacation is the most awaited time in a student’s life. It is time to relax and the world around us.
I visited Bulgaria last summer holidays， where I with my good friend. At the beginning of the first day we were having a great time， you know， no . Spending the whole day on the beach was really . Everything was going in the best way， except for the evening.
When it became much colder outside， we to buy something to eat. I left our bags in front of the hotel and my friend Gosia asked our teachers to have a look at our once in a while. Having ensured they were ， we finally went to the nearest shop.
When we came back， it seemed nobody about our bags， in which we had our cosmetics and clothes！ Members of the as well as teachers went into the ， leaving our bags alone. ， Gosia and I ran towards the front of the building only to find Gosia’s bag was in the right place while mine ！
My teachers were really ashamed about the fact they had about my luggage. So not only were they really ， but they also did their best to find the and my bag.
Firstly I was really stressed and I thought it would ruin my great as I had thought but both my bag and the stealer were the next day！
So that’s my funny story. Did you have any ， maybe even some similar to mine？ If yes， I hope it ended as well as mine did！
41. A. lead B. affect C. explore D. change
42. A. competed B. communicated C. argued D. went
43. A. sleep B. work C. play D. joke
44. A. relaxing B. tiring C. astonishing D. embarrassing
45. A. coming B. familiar C. peaceful D. similar
46. A. refused B. failed C. decided D. feared
47. A. friends B. belongings C. rooms D. pets
48. A. special B. valuable C. popular D. safe
49. A. talked B. complained C. heard D. remembered
50. A. camp B. research C. committee D. company
51. A. shop B. park C. hotel D. beach
52. A. Finally B. Immediately C. Seriously D. Carefully
53. A. dropped B. left C. existed D. disappeared
54. A. forgotten B. thought C. worried D. complained
55. A. creative B. outgoing C. helpful D. generous
56. A. passenger B. stealer C. traveler D. passers-by
57. A. life B. hope C. interests D. holidays
58. A. fortunately B. honestly C. clearly D. strangely
59. A. caught B. returned C. found ; D. reported
60. A. events B. adventures C. problems D. disasters
第二節 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Wolong Giant Panda Nature Reserve Research Center was set up in 1958 （save） the declining panda population. The Giant Panda Nature Reserve is a three-hour drive from Chengdu. It’s a natural reserve （cover） over 200，000 hectares. As the （large） panda reserve of all in China， Wolong （add） to UNESCO in 1980.
In 2003 Wolong Giant Panda Nature Reserve opened up wildlife observation areas， and it （attract） over 100，000 visitors each year. Wolong Giant Panda Nature Reserve is also home other rare and endangered wild animals such as the golden monkey， red panda， and more.
The giant panda is （usual） classified in the bear family， and is native to central and southern China. Pandas’ main food is bamboo， but they also eat foods such as fish， eggs， and honey.
Adult pandas have a （long） of 1.6 m to 1.8 m， and weight between 176 to 275 pounds. Giant pandas have a large head with obvious black patches around the eyes， ears， and the body.
Giant pandas are found in mountainous regions are thick with bamboo trees in Sichuan and Tibet. Pandas reproduce very slowly， and infant mortality （死亡率） is high—these are major reasons why it’s such vulnerable （易危的） species.
61. 62. 63. 64. 65.
66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（﹨）划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2．只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
Since my childhood， libraries have played a role of great important in my life. When I was a pupil， I regarded my every one trip to the school library an adventure. I enjoyed reading different kinds of book I was interested in. It was for this reason why I decided to volunteer at a library. At first I had difficulty remember where each book should be shelved and I got used to doing this soon. Working in the library might seem bored for most people. However， it was the useful experience for me. It has not only developed my ability to read， but also help me make a contribution to society.
第二節 书面表达（满分25分）
假定你是李华，你的英国朋友Peter正在学中文，他很喜欢中国诗词，他想知道谁是你最喜欢的中国诗人。请给他写封邮件，内容包括：
1．你最喜欢的诗人；
2．喜欢他/她的原因；
3．欢迎Peter来中国学习。
注意：
1．词数100左右；
2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
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