2020年高考英语模拟试题（二）

杨红东

本試卷满分150分（不含听力），考试时间120分钟。

第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

1. What will Eric do first？

A. Go swimming.

B. Tidy his room.

C. Watch a movie.

2.Where doesthe conversation probably take place？

A. At a hotel.

B. At a restaurant.

C. At a supermarket.

3. When does the movie finish？

A. At 7：45 pm.

B. At 7：00 pm.

C. At 6：45 pm.

4. What is the probable relationship between the two speakers？

A. Husband and wife.

B. Teacher and student.

C. Driver and passenger.

5. What is the talk mainly about？

A. A plan.

B. A joke.

C. A play.

第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6. Where did Messy go on holiday？

A. In Germany and France.

B. In France and China.

C. In China and Germany.

7. Why didnt Rachel go with the woman？

A. She visited her parents.

B. She was on a business trip.

C. She stayed up late for work.

听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。

8.Why was the woman late？

A. She cooked a meal.

B. She picked up a cake.

C. She invited some students.

9. What do the speakers prepare for？

A. A company picnic.

B. A business lecture.

C. A birthday party.

听第8段材料，回答第11、12题。

10. Who offered the woman information about the island？

A. Her uncle.

B. Her classmate.

C. Her friend.

11. When will the speakers work together？

A. On Wednesday.

B. On Thursday.

C. On Friday.

12. How long will it take the speakers to finish the project？

A. Two evenings.

B. Two days.

C. Two weeks.

听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。

13. What will the woman do after graduation？

A. Try to get a job.

B. Continue her studies.

C. Work in a job market.

14. Which degree does the woman want to get first？

A. A bachelors degree.

B. A masters degree.

C. A doctors degree.

15. How can the woman afford her education？

A. By getting a scholarship.

B. By doing a part-time job.

C. By borrowing some money.

16.What does the man think of the womans studying abroad？

A. It was tough.

B. It was terrible.

C. It was interesting.

聽第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. How long is the park open every day？

A. 11 hours.

B. 9 hours.

C. 7 hours.

18. What can visitors buy at the VisitorsCentre？

A. Bikes.

B. Books.

C. Maps.

19. What are visitors not allowed to do on the lake？

A. Fishing.

B. Camping.

C. Skating.

20. What do we know about the park？

A. Some of the staff are experienced.

B. There is a wheelchair hire service.

C. Regular buses leave every 15 minutes.

第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分60分）

第一节（共15小题；每小题3分，满分45分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

A

Zoo Summer Camps

June-August 2020

Online Registration：zoosociety.org/Summer

●Cost per camp：$50 Zoo Pass members；$60 non-members

●Who may attend：Children ages 12， 13 and 14.

●LUNCH：Participants need to bring a bag lunch and beverage. A snack and water are provided during the day.

●Cellphone use not permitted for the duration of the camp.

●An adult（18 years or older）must check children in.

CAREERS：WORKING AT A ZOO

Caring for animals in a zoo is hard work！ Explore the many jobs at the Milwaukee County Zoo. Discover how we get new animals， see how animals are trained and learn what it takes to work at a zoo. With animal demonstrations， behind-the-scenes tours and guest speakers， this camp will give you a better understanding of the variety of zoo careers.（.）

9：30 a.m.-3 p.m.： June 23；July 17，22；August 4 CAREERS：EXHIBIT DESIGN

Learn how zoo exhibits are designed to meet a variety of animal needs. Talk with zookeepers who oversee the different animal areas. Explore the specialized work involved in housing our Zoos animals， from birds to big cats. Then design your own animal exhibit.（

.）

9：30 a.m.-3 p.m.： June 12；July 21，31；August 5

CAREERS：ANIMAL ENRICHMENT

Zookeepers look for ways to“enrich”the lives of the animals that live in our Zoo. Learn how they make life more interesting for the animals in their care. Well create toys， treats for a variety of animals and then see how they interact with these new items.（.）

9：30 a.m.-3 p.m.： June 17，30；July 23；August 12

21. What does a participant need to carry？

A. A bag lunch.B. A snack.

C. A mobile phone.D. Student ID card.

22. If you are interested in how animals are trained， which camp can you apply for？

A. EXHIBIT DESIGN.

B. WORKING AT A ZOO.

C. BEYOND THE ZOO.

D. ANIMAL ENRICHMENT.

23. On which date should you register if youd like to make animals happy？

A. August 4.B. July 21.

C. June 12.D. July 23.

B

On an afternoon in 2014 in Denmark，Decan Andersen saw a baby red squirrel fall from his apartment building and land in the middle of his garden， injured and bleeding. Although concerned， Andersen left the squirrel alone and went inside， thinking that the mother would come and rescue him.

But when that didnt happen， the 37-year-old former television salesman knew what he had to do. He brought the furry baby back home and got on the horn with wildlife officials for advice. And while he was on the phone， a strange thing happened： His cat Cocos motherly instincts took hold， washing him with her tongue and warming him up. Later， after a veterinarian（獸医）had dressed the squirrels wounds， Andersen made his new housemate some tiny sweaters and socks to prevent him from scratching hiswounds.

Then Tintin———named after the movie his children were watching，“”———got so used to this cozy home life during his convalescence that the family soon realized they couldnt release him back into the wild， especially since he now had no fear of cats！ Feeding him kitten milk from a bottle until Tintin grew strong enough to crack nuts on his own， Andersen received special permission from Danish Wildlife Preservation officials to keep the red squirrel， since they are considered endangered in Denmark and several other countries.

Using a little harness（甲胄）and leash（安全绳）to protect Tintin from dogs， eagles and cats that werent as tolerant of squirrels as Coco， Andersen began taking his little pet everywhere he went， documenting their adventures on Facebook and Instagram， where they now have almost 40，0000 followers.

“With so much negativity in the world，I thought it could help lift people up，”Andersen said.“Most people who meet us feel amazed and want to know more. He makes people forget about their troubles for a moment so they can laugh and smile. Hes certainly brought light and enjoyment to me and my family. We have a special bond and are pretty much together， 24/7.”

24.How did Andersen respond to the injured squirrel first？

A. He left it as it was.

B. He called wildlife officials.

C. He went to rescue it right away.

D. He hid himself in his apartment.

D. It will go out of business.

29. According to the author， the value of the small bookstores exists in the fact that _______.

A. they bring readers back to the good old days

B. they give readers a sense of inner satisfaction

C. they create a strong literal bond among readers

D. theyofferreadersalotofsurprisesandcharacters

30. Why did the author refuse to buy an e-reader？

A. To save money.

B. To support digital companies.

C. To hold on to her faith.

D. To protect her eyesight.

31. Whats the main idea of the text？

A. Digital books will become popular.

B. Bookstores should disappear slowly.

C. Todays publishing industry goes wrong.

D. The traditional novels have a reason to survive.

D

Today 783 million，or nearly one in 10，people around the world lack access to clean drinking water， according to UNICEF. These people spend a collective 200 million hours a day fetching water from distant sources. Even though technologies exist for purifying polluted water， these typically require expensive equipment and lots of energy， putting them beyond the reach of many communities.

Recently， researchers have been working to upgrade solar stills（太陽能蒸馏器）as a cheap， low-tech alternative. The traditional still is little more than a black-bottomed container filled with water and topped with clear glass or plastic. The black bottom absorbs sunlight， heating water so that it goes up and the steam then builds on the clear covering and trickles into a col-lector. But the output is low. Commercially available versions produce about 0.3 liters of water per hour per square meter（L/h/m2）. The average person requires about 3 liters of water a day for drinking. Providing enough drinking water for a small family requires a still around 5 square meters in size. Operating at their theoretical best， such stills can only produce 1.6 L/h/m2.

Guihua Yu， a materials scientist at the University of Texas in Austin， and colleagues recently reported a way around this limit， which involves mixtures that form a 3D multihole， water-absorbent network. They fashioned a gellike sponge（类凝胶海绵）of two polymers（聚合物）———one serving as water-holder called polyvinyl alcohol（PVA）， the other a light absorber called polypyrrole（PPy）. Water molecules（分子）in the PVA become steam more readily than regular water. Using this technology， Yus solar still produced 3.2 L/h/m2of water， double the theoretical limit.

“This is a fantastic starting point，”says Peng Wang， an environmental engineer at King Abdullah University of Science and Technology in Thuwal， Saudi Arabia. Wang notes that the materials in the hydrogel are both commercially available and cheap， bringing a silver lining to those who need it most.

32. What makes purifying polluted water difficult for many communities？

A. Lack of technology.

B. Complex processing.

C. Distant water sources.

D. Unaffordable equipment.

33. How long does a traditional still need to work for a persons daily use？

A. 2 hours.B. 16 hours.

C. 4 hours.D. 5 hours.

34.What attitude does Peng Wang hold toward Guihua Yus solar still？

A. Positive.B. Ambiguous.

C. Concerned.D. Objective.

35. Which of the following can be the best title of the text？

A. How to access cleaning drinking water

B. A new starting point for the environment

C. New solar technology for millions in need

D. What you can do to make the world better

第二節（共5小题；每小题3分，满分15分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Weve all been encouraged to“think outside the box.”The problem is that were creatures of habit and most of us prefer the comfort of familiar routines.36 . Its about answering“These are our best practices”not with a nod but with a raised eyebrow. And often， although were often told wethink outside the box， were rarely told how.

Here are some simple tricks to help you step out of your comfort zone and think in a creative way.

37 .

If you think your problem is too complex for a child to understand， take some time to figure out how to explain it simply. Richard Feynman， the late Nobel Laureate in physics， is attributed with saying，“38.”Sometimes the very act of figuring out how to explain a complex problem in simple terms results in a creative solution.

Ask why.

39 ：“Thats how weve always done it.”Were hardwired to resist change， especially when what weve been doing has been working okay， if not spectacularly. When the routine is the roadblock，“why”is the battering ram. Asking“But why have we always done it that way？”can reveal flaws and make way for creative thinking.

Freewrite.

Freewriting is the act of picking a topic， setting a timer for a short amount of time， and writing as fast as you can without stopping to edit. It flows best if you do it with a pen and paper rather than on a computer. 40 .

A.Simplify it

B.Ask a child what they would do

C.Most of the pushback we get comes with a simple phrase

D.Thinking outside the box can mean challenging long-held beliefs

E.If you cant explain it to a six-year-old， you dont really understand it

F.The timer adds some pressure to keep writing， forcing your brain to think creatively

G.You dont have to know how to draw， just pick up whatever tools you have on hand

第三部分语言知识运用（共两节，满分55分）

第一节（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

James ODonnell， 43， always knew he needed to be introduced to the woman who saved his life so he could thank her face to face. About 3 years ago， he had a biopsy（活检）done after months of feeling41 . When the results came out， he was42it wasnt cancer， but quickly learned it was just as43 . He was then told he needed a bone marrow（骨髓）transplant. His siblings（兄弟姐妹）all got 44 but with no luck， so he would have to wait for the45of a total stranger.

As it happened one year earlier， Leah McDougall， living in Bootle， popped out for a lunch break at work， passed the desk for the Blood Donor Charity， 46 and didnt think any more of it———47she got a call saying she was a48 . Travelling to London， Leah followed the49 and then got back to her50 life.

James never forgot his donor. Six months after his operation， he51a card to express his52but didnt hear back， so he53 again after the second anniversary and this time got a54 .

On Nov. 6， 2019， they finally55 on stage at the Charitys gala dinner.

In the speech， Leah said，“When I tell people I have56 bone marrow their first response is： Oh my God！ Didnt that57 ？”“For many people， its the 58 of pain， but I want people to 59 that it is just next to nothing. The60 for doing something like this is far greater than what you go through.”

第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Weight loss isnt all about what we do or dont eat. Daily habits are also important when61comes to keeping a healthy weight. Getting exercise might be the first thing you think of， 62 another important tip involves something simple： getting more sleep.

Researchers believe that if you dont get enough sleep，youre more likely to gain weight. It may be 63（part）because when we go to bed late， we eat more food， especially later in the evening. Children and teens， in particular， can 64（affect）. There are several studies 65（document）these effects， including the following： In young children（4 to 5 years old）， later bedtime was associated with 66（increase）body mass index（BMI）scores. Chances of being fat were 49 percent67（high）for those who went to bed at 9 pm or later. For 6-to 10-year-olds， weight， waist circumference（腰圍）， and fat mass68（be）significantly higher in late sleepers compared to normal sleepers. Adolescents 69 late bedtimes were 1.5 times more likely to be obese than those who went to bed early.

Take a look at your sleep habits. If you dont get at least seven hours of quality sleep daily， consider shifting your bedtime to earlier in the evening. As little as 70 half-hour could make a big difference.

第四部分写作（共两节，满分35分）

第一节短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线（＼）划掉。

修改：在错的词下画一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：

1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；

2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。

Last summer my dad took me to learn horse riding. It was dangerous， as learn to ride a horse was not like riding a bike， but it meant to be pioneer. When we arrived at the open range， the coach offered me advices on how to stay safe and comfortably on the horseback. I gathered my courage， get prepared and climbed up. The horse seemed too gentle that I quickly learned to balance me. Gradually I allowed it to get running at a more fast pace. Then flooded a great feeling of success within me. My dad， that waved his hand， seemed to be satisfying with the sportsman before him.

第二節书面表达（满分25分）

假定你是李华，你的美国朋友想学习中国传统文化，请你回复邮件，推荐一本合适的书给他，并叙述理由。

注意：

1.词数100左右；

2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；

3.结束语已为你写好。

Dear Peter，

I do hope this book will be practical and helpful to you.

Yours，

Li Hua